eVidyarthi

Mock Test – SSC Stenographer

17 Nov 2022 S3

1. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?
13 + 26 × 2 – 5 ÷ 4 = 6

Question 1 of 200

2. If + means ÷, – means +, × means – and ÷ means x, then what will come in place of ? in the given equation?
6 ÷ 4 × 10 + 2 – 3 = ?

Question 2 of 200

3. Arrange the following in a logical and meaningful order.
1. India

2. Karnataka

3. Asia

4. South India

5. Belgaum

Question 3 of 200

4. If A denotes '+', B denotes 'x', C denotes '–', and D denotes '÷', then what will come in place of '?' in the following equation?
77 A 23 B 2 A 25 D 5 = 8 B 32 D 4 ? 64

Question 4 of 200

5. Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

Question 5 of 200

6. Select the set in which the number are related in the same way as the numbers of the given sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(17, 31, 7)

(18, 40, 11)

Question 6 of 200

7. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
WEIGHTY : GIEWHTY :: STROLLS : ORTSLLS :: WIDGETS : ?

Question 7 of 200

8. Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the letter series.
A B _ C C C _ D D D E F _ G G G H _ H H

Question 8 of 200

9. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
57, 50, 55, 52 ?

Question 9 of 200

10. Kiran shows an old photo containing a boy to his son and says, "Your mother's brother's father's brother has two children. One of them is married to a girl called Sita and the boy in this photo is her son."
How is the boy in the photo related to Kiran's son?

Question 10 of 200

11. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
7, 9, 15, 45, 105, 235, ?

Question 11 of 200

12. In a certain code language, ‘YOU' is written as ‘7878' and 'GO' is written as ‘108'. How will 'SIT' be written in that language?

Question 12 of 200

13. Kirti, Suman, Shubh, Kanak, Pari, Charu, Shlok and Shivi are sitting around a square table facing the centre of the table. Some of them are sitting at the corners, while some are sitting at the exact centre of the sides. Kirti sits third to the left of Shubh. Kirti sits at one of the corners. Kanak sits second to the right of Pari. Pari does not sit at any of the corners. Pari is not an immediate neighbour of Kirti. Suman is an immediate neighbour of Charu. Suman does not sit at any of the middle of the sides. Only three people sit between Suman and Shlok.

Who sits to the immediate left of Kanak?

Question 13 of 200

14. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the signs and to balance the given equation.
23 * 12 * 36 * 2 * 9 * 285

Question 14 of 200

15. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
2, 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, ?

Question 15 of 200

16. In a certain code language, 'CUT' is coded as '52322' and 'CAN' is coded as '5316'. How will 'HIT' be coded in that language?

Question 16 of 200

17. Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Assemble

2. Astronomy

3. Assessment

4. Ascending

5. Assumption

6. Assurance

Options:

Question 17 of 200

18. Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
C _ _ D _ C _ W _ J C I _ D J C _ W D _

Question 18 of 200

19. 'A + B' means 'A is the brother of B'.
‘A – B’ means 'A is the mother of B'.

'A × B' means 'A is the husband of B'.

'A ÷ B' means 'A is the sister of B'.

'A @ B' means 'A is the son of B'.

If U + V ÷ W – X × Y, which of the following statements is correct?

Question 19 of 200

20. Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some sounds are noises.

All noises are debates.

Some debates are conversations.

Conclusions:

I. No noise is a conversation.

II. At least some conversations are sounds.

III. Some sounds are debates.

Question 20 of 200

21. Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons.

How many men are sales executives in the insurance industry?

Question 21 of 200

22. Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

No card is a picture.

Some pictures are frames.

No frame is a lens.

Conclusions:

I. No card is a frame.

II. All pictures can never be lenses.

III. At least some cards are lenses.

Options:

Question 22 of 200

23. Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

Question 23 of 200

24. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(72, 84, 42)

(96, 108, 54)

Question 24 of 200

25. In a certain code language, 'HUT' is coded as '55' and 'MAT' is coded as '40'. How will 'BIB' be coded in that language?

Question 25 of 200

26. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?
18 × 6 – 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = – 43

Question 26 of 200

27. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Question 27 of 200

28. Town M is to the north of Town D. Town A is to the north of Town B. Town D is to the south-east of Town A. Town A is to the south of Town C. Town M is to the east of Town A. What is the position of Town C with respect to Town B?

Question 28 of 200

29. In a certain code language, 'DOUBLE' is coded as '59', CHECK' is coded as '30'. How will 'GLITTER' be coded in that language?

Question 29 of 200

30. Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

Question 30 of 200

31. Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some deer are snakes.

All deer are tigers.

Some wolves are deer.

Conclusions:

I. Some tigers are not deer.

II. Some deer are wolves.

III. Some tigers are snakes.

Question 31 of 200

32. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different.
Pick the odd one out.

Question 32 of 200

33. Two Statements are given followed by Two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:

Some pinks are black.

Some blue are pink.

Conclusions:

I. All blue are black.

II. All pink are black.

Options:

Question 33 of 200

34. Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are of different weights. Only two people are lighter than G. E is heavier than C. Only four people are lighter than A. F is lighter than C. Only one person is lighter than B. D is heavier than E. Who is the heaviest of all?

Question 34 of 200

35. Select the option that is related to the third number-pair in the same way as the second number-pair is related to the first number-pair and the sixth number-pair is related to the fifth number-pair.
[13/17] : [17/13] :: [23/18] : ? :: [33/26] : [26/33]

Question 35 of 200

36. What was the day of the week on 05 April 1234?

Question 36 of 200

37. Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only two people sit to the right of E. Only two people sit between D and C. G has no neighbours on the left. D is the only neighbour of A. B sits third to the right of G.

Who sits third to the right of G?

Question 37 of 200

38. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Question 38 of 200

39. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
KI, EK, ZM, VO, SQ, QS, ?

Question 39 of 200

40. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Question 40 of 200

41. Select the set in which the number are related in the same way as the numbers of the
given sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(21, 63, 189)

(19, 57, 171)

Question 41 of 200

42. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(663, 590, 517)

(499, 426, 353)

Question 42 of 200

43. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven friends having different heights. R is taller than 4 persons. Q is taller than R but shorter than P. T is taller than U but shorter than S. U is not the shortest. How many people are shorter than T?

Question 43 of 200

44. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
132, 156, 182, ?, 240

Question 44 of 200

45. Select the set in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(12, 21, 84)

Question 45 of 200

46. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different.
Pick the odd one out.

Question 46 of 200

47. Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term.
LAMP : BNMQ :: MOON : PPNO : MARS : ?

Question 47 of 200

48. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?
52 + 36 ÷ 9 × 3 – 1 = 210

Question 48 of 200

49. Town B is to the north of Town A. Town C is to the east of Town B. Town D is to the north of Town C. Town E is to the west of Town D. What is the position of Town E with respect to Town A? (All positions are arranged in GRID pattern)

Question 49 of 200

50. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
12 : 181 :: 17 : ? :: 14 : 239

Question 50 of 200

51. In which year did Henri Becquerel discover that uranium salts emit a penetrating radiation that can be registered on a photographic plate?

Question 51 of 200

52. _______ are also known as monsoon forests.

Question 52 of 200

53. Which of the following structures is NOT built in the Delhi Sultanate period?

Question 53 of 200

54. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi, the Hindustani classical vocalist, is a follower of which gharana?

Question 54 of 200

55. Double helical model of DNA was proposed by _________.

Question 55 of 200

56. What do you call the amount of organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis?

Question 56 of 200

57. Who among the following received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1936 for 'studying the molecular structure through the investigation of dipole moments and the diffraction of X-rays and electrons in gases'?

Question 57 of 200

58. In which of the following are ovules NOT enclosed by any ovary wall?

Question 58 of 200

59. In which year did the Rajya Sabha meet for the first time?

Question 59 of 200

60. New seafloor is created at a:

Question 60 of 200

61. In which state is the Konark dance festival organised every year for 5 days?

Question 61 of 200

62. Who among the following won the Arjuna Award 2021 in the Fencing discipline?

Question 62 of 200

63. In which of the following years was Birsa Munda arrested by the Britishers, convicted on charges of rioting, and jailed for two years?

Question 63 of 200

64. Which is the oldest veda among all four vedas?

Question 64 of 200

65. In which of the following Hindu months is the festival of Diwali celebrated?

Question 65 of 200

66. What organic compounds are found in the cells of apples, and when these are exposed to oxygen in the air, for example through slicing, the oxygen causes reaction?

Question 66 of 200

67. In which of the following IOC Sessions was Thomas Bach re-elected as the President of the International Olympic Committee?

Question 67 of 200

68. Accounting of National Income at constant prices is known as _______.

Question 68 of 200

69. In which of the following classical dances of India are there twenty-four hand gestures?

Question 69 of 200

70. 'In the afternoon of time' is an autobiography of which Indian poet?

Question 70 of 200

71. Which of the following is a fundamental duty mentioned in the Indian Constitution?

Question 71 of 200

72. In July 2021 who among the following became the Minister of State in the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj?

Question 72 of 200

73. The Atal Tunnel has been built by which organisation?

Question 73 of 200

74. The first Khelo India University Games were hosted in ______ at ______.

Question 74 of 200

75. Which Gupta king led an expedition to western India where he overcame the last of the Shakas?

Question 75 of 200

76. Which state has the least poverty according to the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2021?

Question 76 of 200

77. Which is a beta-emitting radioactive isotope of hydrogen that has one proton and two neutrons in its nucleus, making it three times as heavy as a hydrogen nucleus and one and a half times heavier than deuterium?

Question 77 of 200

78. Imrat Khan, the famous instrumentalist, is a renowned player of the sitar and which other instrument?

Question 78 of 200

79. The Government of India Act was passed in ________.

Question 79 of 200

80. In February 2022, which Ministry launched a campaign Bhasha Certificate Selfie to encourage cultural diversity and promote multilingualism, and to foster the spirit of Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat?

Question 80 of 200

81. Ajatasatru sent his minister named Vassakara to the Buddha to get his advice on the matter related with attack on the ________.

Question 81 of 200

82. Which of the following Five-Year Plan was designed by DR Gadgil?

Question 82 of 200

83. Name the metal ion used in the Veri-Green process.

Question 83 of 200

84. Majuli festival is celebrated in the month of __________.

Question 84 of 200

85. In the context of agricultural production, MSP refers to:

Question 85 of 200

86. 'Golden Girl' is an autobiography by which of the following Indian athletes?

Question 86 of 200

87. The Amendments to the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act 1991 made in March 2021 have been made with reference to which of the following articles of the Constitution?

Question 87 of 200

88. Vijayanagara was founded on the banks of which river?

Question 88 of 200

89. Who among the following was the 24th Tirthankara in Jainism, in ancient India?

Question 89 of 200

90. Famous instrumentalist, Lakshminarayana is renowned for playing which of the following instruments?

Question 90 of 200

91. Which of the following passes is located in Western Ghats of India?

Question 91 of 200

92. The very first cricket Test match was played on:

Question 92 of 200

93. Which of the following Harappan sites had a dockyard?

Question 93 of 200

94. Which of the following festivals is primarily celebrated by the Buddhist Community?

Question 94 of 200

95. The rise in unemployment in India due to the 2008 financial crisis was an example of:

Question 95 of 200

96. Which of the following is a coal deposit basin in Bangladesh?

Question 96 of 200

97. Which of the following combinations is NOT correctly matched?

Question 97 of 200

98. How does 'El Nino' affect the weather of the Indian subcontinent?

Question 98 of 200

99. Which of the following is NOT an example of Agro based industry of India?

Question 99 of 200

100. In which year was the Tagore Ratna and Tagore Awards instituted by the Sangeet Natak Akademi for contribution to the performing arts in India?

Question 100 of 200

101. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Is it ever possible to create a supposed cure for all diseases and problems in this world?

Question 101 of 200

102. Select the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence.

His haughty attitude angered everyone present at the meeting.

Question 102 of 200

103. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Kiran says that he worked hard for a good rank.

Question 103 of 200

104. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

A diligent individual possesses the quality to win every difficulty.

Question 104 of 200

105. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.
The committee recommended / that the bill / be passed immediately.

Question 105 of 200

106. Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the following word.
Dwindle

Question 106 of 200

107. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The supermarket may declare a weekend offer for all the food items.

Question 107 of 200

108. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Cheetahs run faster then lions.

Question 108 of 200

109. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.
Although he was sincere and hard-working, / he could not confront / his boss manly.

Question 109 of 200

110. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The two old queens are signing the treaty today.

Question 110 of 200

111. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

My friend did not steal my money.

Question 111 of 200

112. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Grandpa often likes to sit in the balcony and chew the fat with me.

Question 112 of 200

113. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
He lost his mother when he was seven and his father when he was thirteen, ____________ which the orphan boys were sent off by guardian uncles to a grammar school at Hawkshead.

Question 113 of 200

114. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Reena is attending a seminar online.

Question 114 of 200

115. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
My friend told me that he was very thirsty and requested me to give him a glass of water.

Question 115 of 200

116. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

The Government was / deaf on the protests and/ continued with its plan.

Question 116 of 200

117. Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Question 117 of 200

118. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Vicky asked them whether they wanted to join the party he had organised.

Question 118 of 200

119. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution'.
My wife as well as my friends are going to Italy.

Question 119 of 200

120. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

Snow fluttered in Josie's window as she got ready for work.

Question 120 of 200

121. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Flaw

Question 121 of 200

122. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
John bought sweets at the store when he visited yesterday.

Question 122 of 200

123. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
I learnt a great lesson from my failure.

Question 123 of 200

124. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Fastidious

Question 124 of 200

125. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
I said to my father, "Don't worry! I will complete all the work by tomorrow."

Question 125 of 200

126. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Jaishit had written / the application / before you came.

Question 126 of 200

127. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution'.

While the general was speaking with Mildred, he receives a massage that Butler had escaped.

Question 127 of 200

128. Change the following sentence from direct speech to indirect speech and choose the correct sentence from the given options.
The students said, "We wish we didn't have to write exams."

Question 128 of 200

129. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

The instructor made / the students to solve the problem within five minutes.

Question 129 of 200

130. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Two peas in a pod

Question 130 of 200

131. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
"I will help you," he will say to me.

Question 131 of 200

132. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Admire

Question 132 of 200

133. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Nidhi draws the diagrams.

Question 133 of 200

134. The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Looking at / clouds in the /sky, I think / it will raining.

Question 134 of 200

135. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
These kinds of stories are written by Peter.

Question 135 of 200

136. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Callous

Question 136 of 200

137. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
The little boy said, "My cat can climb the tree."

Question 137 of 200

138. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Mukesh said to me, "You are wrong".

Question 138 of 200

139. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
I bade him write the composition twice.

Question 139 of 200

140. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.
The stationery was / evenly distributed among / all the poor children.

Question 140 of 200

141. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The captain exclaimed with joy that he had won the toss.

Question 141 of 200

142. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

It is always advised to include a visit to the Sun temple of Konark in your itinerary, if you are planning to visit Odisha.

Question 142 of 200

143. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
In her heart, Sheila knew that her paths with Rahul would _______ soon.

Question 143 of 200

144. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

With these words Titus began to move, as it were, out of a dream, and doubting whether he heard Gisippus speak, or else saw but a vision, lay still as a man abashed, But when he beheld the tears trickling down by the face of Gisippus, he then comforted him, and thanked him for his ________ kindness, refused the benefit that he offered, saying that it were better that a hundred such unkind wretches as he was should perish, than so noble a man as was Gisippus should sustain reproach or damage.

Question 144 of 200

145. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Somebody sent him a cheque for a hundred euros as his remuneration.

Question 145 of 200

146. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Permission

Question 146 of 200

147. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

The manager said to the employee, "Why were you absent yesterday?"

Question 147 of 200

148. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

I had praying / to God / for your golden future.

Question 148 of 200

149. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Mandeep has repaired the truck.

Question 149 of 200

150. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The rule clearly states that heavy equipment is not be carried in the elevator and doing so will incur a fine.

Question 150 of 200

151. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

His pet dog was killed by a flesh eating animal.

Question 151 of 200

152. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Rendezvous

Question 152 of 200

153. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

Ravi said to me, "Do you know the house of your family doctor?"

Question 153 of 200

154. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error.
Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

My brother had being cracking jokes.

Question 154 of 200

155. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Chameleons can change their colour in an instant in order to blend with their background. They also have the ______ to move each of their eyes independently.

They are also capable of looking in any direction. Chameleons feed on insects. They catch them with the help of their sticky tongue. Did you know: they can shoot out their tongue farther more than the _______ of their own head and body combined!

Question 155 of 200

156. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Bibliophile

Question 156 of 200

157. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Break the ice

Question 157 of 200

158. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

We didn't/ went yesterday as / it rained yesterday.

Question 158 of 200

159. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Arunima Sinha / is first amputee / to scale / Mount Everest.

Question 159 of 200

160. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM to replace the italicised word.

He greeted Charles with a languid wave of his hand.

Question 160 of 200

161. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To keep a good table

Question 161 of 200

162. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Sid is / bring the cake / for Ria's birthday.

Question 162 of 200

163. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Sherin is waiting for her friend.

Question 163 of 200

164. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution'.

The staff member could not show off that day to the office as his ward was ill.

Question 164 of 200

165. Select the most appropriate synonym for the underlined word in the given sentence.

Arson is a flagitious act because it endangers lives and destroys homes.

Question 165 of 200

166. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Emigration

Question 166 of 200

167. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

The volcano erupted and released hot gases.

Question 167 of 200

168. Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

S1) Sariska National Park is a wildlife sanctuary which is located at a distance of around 107 km from Jaipur.

A) The park has historical monuments and temples.

B) These depict the legacy of the Kings of Alwar.

C) Both carnivores and herbivores are found in the place.

D) The park is bigger than Ranthambore National Park.

S6) The Tad Vriksh (palm tree) is usually found at this place.

Question 168 of 200

169. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

None but cowards / is scared of losing the battle.

Question 169 of 200

170. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Gregory's experiment at the May Science Fair turned out to be a facile one.

Question 170 of 200

171. Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In the years leading up to the Russian Revolution of 1917, the country had a succession of wars. These were, The Crimean War, The Russo-Turkish War, The Russo-Japanese War and The World War I. All of these required a lot from the state, including tax dollars and manpower. Russia suffered defeat in all, except against Turkey. This series of war caused great discontent among the people and caused suffering in the country's economy and government.

Along with these wars, there were three major parties that contributed to the cause of the revolution. First, there were the peasants, who maintained the majority of the population in Russia. They were excessively poor and could barely escape famine from harvest to harvest. The population boom in Russia from 1867-1896 was felt most drastically by the peasants. The increase of 30 million people in less than 30 years was too great that the land to the peasants' disposal did not increase sufficiently. The government tried to help, but war took precedence. Second, there was a rise of the industrial working class. These workers were employed in the mines, factories and workshops of the major cities. They suffered low wages, poor housing and many accidents. Again, the government tried to help by passing factory acts to restrict the number of hours one could work. However, their efforts were at too small a scale to have any real effect. As a result, there were many strikes and constant conflicts between the workers and the police. Lastly, the tsar of Russia was the cause of much disapproval. Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in his family life, than matters of the state. He had an obsession with retaining all his privileges and the belief that he was chosen by God to rule. Also, he didn't understand the forces of industrialization and nationalism that were growing throughout Russia. His disregard for the struggles of the people led them to lose faith in him and the long-standing tradition of autocracy. The people were not content and were ready to revolt. They just needed a good reason and a strong leader.

Which of the following word is the ANTONYM of the word 'precedence' used in the passage?

Question 171 of 200

172. Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In the years leading up to the Russian Revolution of 1917, the country had a succession of wars. These were, The Crimean War, The Russo-Turkish War, The Russo-Japanese War and The World War I. All of these required a lot from the state, including tax dollars and manpower. Russia suffered defeat in all, except against Turkey. This series of war caused great discontent among the people and caused suffering in the country's economy and government.

Along with these wars, there were three major parties that contributed to the cause of the revolution. First, there were the peasants, who maintained the majority of the population in Russia. They were excessively poor and could barely escape famine from harvest to harvest. The population boom in Russia from 1867-1896 was felt most drastically by the peasants. The increase of 30 million people in less than 30 years was too great that the land to the peasants' disposal did not increase sufficiently. The government tried to help, but war took precedence. Second, there was a rise of the industrial working class. These workers were employed in the mines, factories and workshops of the major cities. They suffered low wages, poor housing and many accidents. Again, the government tried to help by passing factory acts to restrict the number of hours one could work. However, their efforts were at too small a scale to have any real effect. As a result, there were many strikes and constant conflicts between the workers and the police. Lastly, the tsar of Russia was the cause of much disapproval. Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in his family life, than matters of the state. He had an obsession with retaining all his privileges and the belief that he was chosen by God to rule. Also, he didn't understand the forces of industrialization and nationalism that were growing throughout Russia. His disregard for the struggles of the people led them to lose faith in him and the long-standing tradition of autocracy. The people were not content and were ready to revolt. They just needed a good reason and a strong leader.

Which of the following can be a suitable title for the given passage?

Question 172 of 200

173. Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In the years leading up to the Russian Revolution of 1917, the country had a succession of wars. These were, The Crimean War, The Russo-Turkish War, The Russo-Japanese War and The World War I. All of these required a lot from the state, including tax dollars and manpower. Russia suffered defeat in all, except against Turkey. This series of war caused great discontent among the people and caused suffering in the country's economy and government.

Along with these wars, there were three major parties that contributed to the cause of the revolution. First, there were the peasants, who maintained the majority of the population in Russia. They were excessively poor and could barely escape famine from harvest to harvest. The population boom in Russia from 1867-1896 was felt most drastically by the peasants. The increase of 30 million people in less than 30 years was too great that the land to the peasants' disposal did not increase sufficiently. The government tried to help, but war took precedence. Second, there was a rise of the industrial working class. These workers were employed in the mines, factories and workshops of the major cities. They suffered low wages, poor housing and many accidents. Again, the government tried to help by passing factory acts to restrict the number of hours one could work. However, their efforts were at too small a scale to have any real effect. As a result, there were many strikes and constant conflicts between the workers and the police. Lastly, the tsar of Russia was the cause of much disapproval. Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in his family life, than matters of the state. He had an obsession with retaining all his privileges and the belief that he was chosen by God to rule. Also, he didn't understand the forces of industrialization and nationalism that were growing throughout Russia. His disregard for the struggles of the people led them to lose faith in him and the long-standing tradition of autocracy. The people were not content and were ready to revolt. They just needed a good reason and a strong leader.

On basis of the information given in the passage, which of following statement is NOT correct?

Question 173 of 200

174. Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In the years leading up to the Russian Revolution of 1917, the country had a succession of wars. These were, The Crimean War, The Russo-Turkish War, The Russo-Japanese War and The World War I. All of these required a lot from the state, including tax dollars and manpower. Russia suffered defeat in all, except against Turkey. This series of war caused great discontent among the people and caused suffering in the country's economy and government.

Along with these wars, there were three major parties that contributed to the cause of the revolution. First, there were the peasants, who maintained the majority of the population in Russia. They were excessively poor and could barely escape famine from harvest to harvest. The population boom in Russia from 1867-1896 was felt most drastically by the peasants. The increase of 30 million people in less than 30 years was too great that the land to the peasants' disposal did not increase sufficiently. The government tried to help, but war took precedence. Second, there was a rise of the industrial working class. These workers were employed in the mines, factories and workshops of the major cities. They suffered low wages, poor housing and many accidents. Again, the government tried to help by passing factory acts to restrict the number of hours one could work. However, their efforts were at too small a scale to have any real effect. As a result, there were many strikes and constant conflicts between the workers and the police. Lastly, the tsar of Russia was the cause of much disapproval. Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in his family life, than matters of the state. He had an obsession with retaining all his privileges and the belief that he was chosen by God to rule. Also, he didn't understand the forces of industrialization and nationalism that were growing throughout Russia. His disregard for the struggles of the people led them to lose faith in him and the long-standing tradition of autocracy. The people were not content and were ready to revolt. They just needed a good reason and a strong leader.

Fill in the blank on the basis of the passage.
Tsar Nicholas II has a belief that he was chosen by ______ to rule.

Question 174 of 200

175. Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In the years leading up to the Russian Revolution of 1917, the country had a succession of wars. These were, The Crimean War, The Russo-Turkish War, The Russo-Japanese War and The World War I. All of these required a lot from the state, including tax dollars and manpower. Russia suffered defeat in all, except against Turkey. This series of war caused great discontent among the people and caused suffering in the country's economy and government.

Along with these wars, there were three major parties that contributed to the cause of the revolution. First, there were the peasants, who maintained the majority of the population in Russia. They were excessively poor and could barely escape famine from harvest to harvest. The population boom in Russia from 1867-1896 was felt most drastically by the peasants. The increase of 30 million people in less than 30 years was too great that the land to the peasants' disposal did not increase sufficiently. The government tried to help, but war took precedence. Second, there was a rise of the industrial working class. These workers were employed in the mines, factories and workshops of the major cities. They suffered low wages, poor housing and many accidents. Again, the government tried to help by passing factory acts to restrict the number of hours one could work. However, their efforts were at too small a scale to have any real effect. As a result, there were many strikes and constant conflicts between the workers and the police. Lastly, the tsar of Russia was the cause of much disapproval. Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in his family life, than matters of the state. He had an obsession with retaining all his privileges and the belief that he was chosen by God to rule. Also, he didn't understand the forces of industrialization and nationalism that were growing throughout Russia. His disregard for the struggles of the people led them to lose faith in him and the long-standing tradition of autocracy. The people were not content and were ready to revolt. They just needed a good reason and a strong leader.

Which of the following wars have not been mentioned in the passage?

Question 175 of 200

176. Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Key factors influencing subway air pollution will include station depth, date of construction, type of ventilation (natural/air conditioning), types of brakes (electromagnetic or conventional brake pads) and wheels (rubber or steel) used on the trains, train frequency and more recently the presence or absence of platform screen-door systems.

In particular, much subway particulate matter is sourced from moving train parts such as wheels and brake pads, as well as from the steel rails and power-supply materials, making the particles dominantly iron-containing.

To date, there is no clear epidemiological indication of abnormal health effects on underground workers and commuters. New York subway workers have been exposed to such air without significant observed impacts on their health, and no increased risk of lung cancer was found among subway train drivers in the Stockholm subway system.

But a note of caution is struck by the observations of scholars who found that employees working on the platforms of Stockholm underground, where PM concentrations were greatest, tended to have higher levels of risk markers for cardiovascular disease than ticket sellers and train drivers.

The dominantly ferrous particles are mixed with particles from a range of other sources, including rock ballast from the track, biological aerosols such as bacteria and viruses, and air from the outdoors, and driven through the tunnel system on turbulent air currents generated by the trains themselves and ventilation systems.

Inferring from passage, what is the most practical way of reducing the health risk of subway life?

Question 176 of 200

177. Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Key factors influencing subway air pollution will include station depth, date of construction, type of ventilation (natural/air conditioning), types of brakes (electromagnetic or conventional brake pads) and wheels (rubber or steel) used on the trains, train frequency and more recently the presence or absence of platform screen-door systems.

In particular, much subway particulate matter is sourced from moving train parts such as wheels and brake pads, as well as from the steel rails and power-supply materials, making the particles dominantly iron-containing.

To date, there is no clear epidemiological indication of abnormal health effects on underground workers and commuters. New York subway workers have been exposed to such air without significant observed impacts on their health, and no increased risk of lung cancer was found among subway train drivers in the Stockholm subway system.

But a note of caution is struck by the observations of scholars who found that employees working on the platforms of Stockholm underground, where PM concentrations were greatest, tended to have higher levels of risk markers for cardiovascular disease than ticket sellers and train drivers.

The dominantly ferrous particles are mixed with particles from a range of other sources, including rock ballast from the track, biological aerosols such as bacteria and viruses, and air from the outdoors, and driven through the tunnel system on turbulent air currents generated by the trains themselves and ventilation systems.

What is the passage about?

Question 177 of 200

178. Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Key factors influencing subway air pollution will include station depth, date of construction, type of ventilation (natural/air conditioning), types of brakes (electromagnetic or conventional brake pads) and wheels (rubber or steel) used on the trains, train frequency and more recently the presence or absence of platform screen-door systems.

In particular, much subway particulate matter is sourced from moving train parts such as wheels and brake pads, as well as from the steel rails and power-supply materials, making the particles dominantly iron-containing.

To date, there is no clear epidemiological indication of abnormal health effects on underground workers and commuters. New York subway workers have been exposed to such air without significant observed impacts on their health, and no increased risk of lung cancer was found among subway train drivers in the Stockholm subway system.

But a note of caution is struck by the observations of scholars who found that employees working on the platforms of Stockholm underground, where PM concentrations were greatest, tended to have higher levels of risk markers for cardiovascular disease than ticket sellers and train drivers.

The dominantly ferrous particles are mixed with particles from a range of other sources, including rock ballast from the track, biological aerosols such as bacteria and viruses, and air from the outdoors, and driven through the tunnel system on turbulent air currents generated by the trains themselves and ventilation systems.

Which of the following diseases is found commonly among workers in underground subways?

Question 178 of 200

179. Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Key factors influencing subway air pollution will include station depth, date of construction, type of ventilation (natural/air conditioning), types of brakes (electromagnetic or conventional brake pads) and wheels (rubber or steel) used on the trains, train frequency and more recently the presence or absence of platform screen-door systems.

In particular, much subway particulate matter is sourced from moving train parts such as wheels and brake pads, as well as from the steel rails and power-supply materials, making the particles dominantly iron-containing.

To date, there is no clear epidemiological indication of abnormal health effects on underground workers and commuters. New York subway workers have been exposed to such air without significant observed impacts on their health, and no increased risk of lung cancer was found among subway train drivers in the Stockholm subway system.

But a note of caution is struck by the observations of scholars who found that employees working on the platforms of Stockholm underground, where PM concentrations were greatest, tended to have higher levels of risk markers for cardiovascular disease than ticket sellers and train drivers.

The dominantly ferrous particles are mixed with particles from a range of other sources, including rock ballast from the track, biological aerosols such as bacteria and viruses, and air from the outdoors, and driven through the tunnel system on turbulent air currents generated by the trains themselves and ventilation systems.

Select the most suitable word from the passage which means 'not covered or hidden'.

Question 179 of 200

180. Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Key factors influencing subway air pollution will include station depth, date of construction, type of ventilation (natural/air conditioning), types of brakes (electromagnetic or conventional brake pads) and wheels (rubber or steel) used on the trains, train frequency and more recently the presence or absence of platform screen-door systems.

In particular, much subway particulate matter is sourced from moving train parts such as wheels and brake pads, as well as from the steel rails and power-supply materials, making the particles dominantly iron-containing.

To date, there is no clear epidemiological indication of abnormal health effects on underground workers and commuters. New York subway workers have been exposed to such air without significant observed impacts on their health, and no increased risk of lung cancer was found among subway train drivers in the Stockholm subway system.

But a note of caution is struck by the observations of scholars who found that employees working on the platforms of Stockholm underground, where PM concentrations were greatest, tended to have higher levels of risk markers for cardiovascular disease than ticket sellers and train drivers.

The dominantly ferrous particles are mixed with particles from a range of other sources, including rock ballast from the track, biological aerosols such as bacteria and viruses, and air from the outdoors, and driven through the tunnel system on turbulent air currents generated by the trains themselves and ventilation systems.

What is the tone of the speaker?

Question 180 of 200

181. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

It was a matter of (1) ______ pleasure that the Chief of Police himself came up to us and congratulated us on our successful efforts in reducing the (2) __________ of child marriages in our area. We were also (3) _________ by other (4) _________ present at the event. Our dear leader, the founder of our NGO, Mr. Kumar was (5) _________ by the mayor with a bouquet

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Question 181 of 200

182. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

It was a matter of (1) ______ pleasure that the Chief of Police himself came up to us and congratulated us on our successful efforts in reducing the (2) __________ of child marriages in our area. We were also (3) _________ by other (4) _________ present at the event. Our dear leader, the founder of our NGO, Mr. Kumar was (5) _________ by the mayor with a bouquet

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Question 182 of 200

183. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

It was a matter of (1) ______ pleasure that the Chief of Police himself came up to us and congratulated us on our successful efforts in reducing the (2) __________ of child marriages in our area. We were also (3) _________ by other (4) _________ present at the event. Our dear leader, the founder of our NGO, Mr. Kumar was (5) _________ by the mayor with a bouquet

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Question 183 of 200

184. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

It was a matter of (1) ______ pleasure that the Chief of Police himself came up to us and congratulated us on our successful efforts in reducing the (2) __________ of child marriages in our area. We were also (3) _________ by other (4) _________ present at the event. Our dear leader, the founder of our NGO, Mr. Kumar was (5) _________ by the mayor with a bouquet

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Question 184 of 200

185. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

It was a matter of (1) ______ pleasure that the Chief of Police himself came up to us and congratulated us on our successful efforts in reducing the (2) __________ of child marriages in our area. We were also (3) _________ by other (4) _________ present at the event. Our dear leader, the founder of our NGO, Mr. Kumar was (5) _________ by the mayor with a bouquet

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Question 185 of 200

186. Directions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The coded box placed on the first page of every chapter (1)_________ quick response code. The first QR code is to (2)_________ the complete e-textbook. The (3)_________ QR codes will help you access the relevant e-resources linked to each other. This will help you (4)_________ your learning in a (5)__________ manner.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Question 186 of 200

187. Directions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The coded box placed on the first page of every chapter (1)_________ quick response code. The first QR code is to (2)_________ the complete e-textbook. The (3)_________ QR codes will help you access the relevant e-resources linked to each other. This will help you (4)_________ your learning in a (5)__________ manner.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Question 187 of 200

188. Directions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The coded box placed on the first page of every chapter (1)_________ quick response code. The first QR code is to (2)_________ the complete e-textbook. The (3)_________ QR codes will help you access the relevant e-resources linked to each other. This will help you (4)_________ your learning in a (5)__________ manner.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Question 188 of 200

189. Directions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The coded box placed on the first page of every chapter (1)_________ quick response code. The first QR code is to (2)_________ the complete e-textbook. The (3)_________ QR codes will help you access the relevant e-resources linked to each other. This will help you (4)_________ your learning in a (5)__________ manner.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Question 189 of 200

190. Directions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The coded box placed on the first page of every chapter (1)_________ quick response code. The first QR code is to (2)_________ the complete e-textbook. The (3)_________ QR codes will help you access the relevant e-resources linked to each other. This will help you (4)_________ your learning in a (5)__________ manner.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Question 190 of 200

191. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

India (1) _________ a rich cultural heritage. We are inheritors of several grand (2) _________ in the fields of music, fine arts, dance, drama etc. Our scriptures are the storehouses of (3) _________wisdom. Our saints aspired to the (4) ________ of the infinite. We have (5) _________ great spiritual values contrasted with which materialistic progress of the West appears insignificant.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Question 191 of 200

192. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

India (1) _________ a rich cultural heritage. We are inheritors of several grand (2) _________ in the fields of music, fine arts, dance, drama etc. Our scriptures are the storehouses of (3) _________wisdom. Our saints aspired to the (4) ________ of the infinite. We have (5) _________ great spiritual values contrasted with which materialistic progress of the West appears insignificant.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Question 192 of 200

193. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

India (1) _________ a rich cultural heritage. We are inheritors of several grand (2) _________ in the fields of music, fine arts, dance, drama etc. Our scriptures are the storehouses of (3) _________wisdom. Our saints aspired to the (4) ________ of the infinite. We have (5) _________ great spiritual values contrasted with which materialistic progress of the West appears insignificant.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Question 193 of 200

194. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

India (1) _________ a rich cultural heritage. We are inheritors of several grand (2) _________ in the fields of music, fine arts, dance, drama etc. Our scriptures are the storehouses of (3) _________wisdom. Our saints aspired to the (4) ________ of the infinite. We have (5) _________ great spiritual values contrasted with which materialistic progress of the West appears insignificant.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Question 194 of 200

195. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

India (1) _________ a rich cultural heritage. We are inheritors of several grand (2) _________ in the fields of music, fine arts, dance, drama etc. Our scriptures are the storehouses of (3) _________wisdom. Our saints aspired to the (4) ________ of the infinite. We have (5) _________ great spiritual values contrasted with which materialistic progress of the West appears insignificant.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Question 195 of 200

196. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

A new (1) _________ was organized by Chhattisgarh Tourism Board in form of National Tribal Dance Festival. The event gave an (2) ________ to the tribal way of life. People from all walks of life had an opportunity to (3) ________ with many tribes. Chhattisgarh is one of the Indian states which have richness and (4) ________ in tribal life. The state is home to many (5) ________ tribes of India. The program happened from 28 October to 30 October, 2021 at the Science College Ground in Raipur.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Question 196 of 200

197. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

A new (1) _________ was organized by Chhattisgarh Tourism Board in form of National Tribal Dance Festival. The event gave an (2) ________ to the tribal way of life. People from all walks of life had an opportunity to (3) ________ with many tribes. Chhattisgarh is one of the Indian states which have richness and (4) ________ in tribal life. The state is home to many (5) ________ tribes of India. The program happened from 28 October to 30 October, 2021 at the Science College Ground in Raipur.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Question 197 of 200

198. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

A new (1) _________ was organized by Chhattisgarh Tourism Board in form of National Tribal Dance Festival. The event gave an (2) ________ to the tribal way of life. People from all walks of life had an opportunity to (3) ________ with many tribes. Chhattisgarh is one of the Indian states which have richness and (4) ________ in tribal life. The state is home to many (5) ________ tribes of India. The program happened from 28 October to 30 October, 2021 at the Science College Ground in Raipur.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Question 198 of 200

199. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

A new (1) _________ was organized by Chhattisgarh Tourism Board in form of National Tribal Dance Festival. The event gave an (2) ________ to the tribal way of life. People from all walks of life had an opportunity to (3) ________ with many tribes. Chhattisgarh is one of the Indian states which have richness and (4) ________ in tribal life. The state is home to many (5) ________ tribes of India. The program happened from 28 October to 30 October, 2021 at the Science College Ground in Raipur.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Question 199 of 200

200. Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

A new (1) _________ was organized by Chhattisgarh Tourism Board in form of National Tribal Dance Festival. The event gave an (2) ________ to the tribal way of life. People from all walks of life had an opportunity to (3) ________ with many tribes. Chhattisgarh is one of the Indian states which have richness and (4) ________ in tribal life. The state is home to many (5) ________ tribes of India. The program happened from 28 October to 30 October, 2021 at the Science College Ground in Raipur.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Question 200 of 200


 

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